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CISI International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Sample Questions (Q90-Q95):

NEW QUESTION # 90
Negotiable bearer securities issued by commercial banks in exchange for fixed-term deposits are known as:

A. Certificates of Deposit
B. Commercial Paper
C. Treasury Bills
D. Bills of Exchange

Answer: A

Explanation:
A Certificate of Deposit (CD) is a negotiable bearer security issued by banks, representing a fixed-term deposit with a specified interest rate.
* Key Features of CDs:
* Issued by commercial banks.
* Fixed-term investment (e.g., 3 months to 1 year).
* Can be traded in secondary markets, making them a liquid investment.
* Why Not Other Options?
* A (Treasury Bills) # Issued by governments, not banks.
* B (Commercial Paper) # Issued by corporations, not banks.
* C (Bills of Exchange) # Used for trade finance, not fixed-term deposits.
# Reference: Bank of England (Certificates of Deposit), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.

NEW QUESTION # 91
When analysing rates of return, why is a short-dated government bond considered to be the risk-free rate?

A. Investors can buy short-dated government bonds without risk
B. There is no tracking error when measuring the performance of government bonds
C. Government bonds are free from all types of risk
D. Governments are considered unlikely to default

Answer: D

Explanation:
* Risk-Free Rate
* The rate of return on an investment with virtually no risk of financial loss.
* Short-dated government bonds are considered risk-free because governments, especially in developed economies, are deemed highly unlikely to default.
* Why the Answer is A
* Short-dated bonds minimize risks associated with duration (interest rate risk).
* Governments can typically print money or increase taxes to meet debt obligations, reducing default risk.
* Why Other Options are Incorrect
* B. Without risk: Investors still face inflation risk and currency risk.
* C. Free from all risks: No investment is completely risk-free; risk is minimized, not eliminated.
* D. No tracking error: Irrelevant to the definition of a risk-free rate.
* ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Risk Management: Defines the risk-free rate and its attributes.
* Economic Theory: Short-dated government bonds as benchmarks for risk-free rates.
ReferencesThus, the correct answer isA. Governments are considered unlikely to default.

NEW QUESTION # 92
What term describes the process that enables savings institutions to transform into banks?

A. Refinancing
B. Demutualisation
C. Peer-to-peer
D. Swap

Answer: B

Explanation:
Demutualisation refers to the process by which a mutual savings institution, such as a building society, converts into a publicly traded company or bank. This transformation allows the institution to raise capital through equity issuance and expand its services beyond mutual members.
Example:
* The Abbey National Building Society in the UK demutualised in the 1980s to become a bank.

NEW QUESTION # 93
The concept of the Sharpe ratio is to measure the:

A. Return above a risk-free rate
B. Ability of the fund manager in different scenarios
C. Amount of performance attributable to a benchmark
D. Effect the annual charge has on fund performance

Answer: A

Explanation:
* Sharpe Ratio Defined
* The Sharpe ratio measuresrisk-adjusted return, specifically the excess return over the risk-free rate per unit of volatility.
* Formula: Sharpe Ratio=Portfolio Return - Risk-
Free RateStandard Deviation of Portfolio Returns ext{Sharpe Ratio} = rac{ ext{Portfolio Return - Risk-Free Rate}}{ ext{Standard Deviation of Portfolio Returns}} Sharpe Ratio=Standard Deviation of Portfolio ReturnsPortfolio Return - Risk-Free Rate
* Why the Answer is B
* The ratio quantifies the return generated for each unit of risk taken, relative to the risk-free rate.
* Why Other Options are Incorrect
* A. Benchmark performance: The Sharpe ratio does not measure performance relative to a benchmark.
* C. Annual charge effect: Unrelated to fund expenses.
* D. Manager ability: Focuses on risk-adjusted returns, not managerial skill.
* ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Risk-Adjusted Metrics: Explains the Sharpe ratio.
* Portfolio Management Literature: Highlights its use in assessing performance.
ReferencesThus, the correct answer isB. Return above a risk-free rate.

NEW QUESTION # 94
Back-end loading is often associated with:

A. Bonds
B. Collective investments
C. Real estate
D. Equities

Answer: B

Explanation:
* What is Back-End Loading?
* A fee structure where costs are charged when an investor sells out of an investment, typically in mutual funds or other collective investments.
* Why the Answer is B
* Collective investments, such as mutual funds, frequently use back-end loads as a way to encourage long-term investment.
* Why Other Options are Incorrect
* A. Bonds: Fees are not typically structured as back-end loads.
* C. Equities: Equities do not have fee structures similar to back-end loads.
* D. Real estate: Transaction costs in real estate are upfront, not back-end.
* ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Collective Investments: Discusses fee structures, including back-end loading.
* Investment Fund Literature: Explains back-end loads as a feature of mutual funds.
References

NEW QUESTION # 95
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